CAT Practice questions

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Couple
  2. Sever
  3. Rend
  4. Lacerate

 

Ans.a

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Quell
  2. Ruffle
  3. Allay
  4. Control

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Cease
  2. Launch
  3. Initiate
  4. Commence

 

Ans.a

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Brink
  2. Hub
  3. Verge
  4. Brim

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Eulogy
  2. Panegyric
  3. Ignominy
  4. Glorification

 

Ans.c

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Detest
  2. Abhor
  3. Ardour
  4. Loathe

 

Ans.c

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Adroit
  2. Adept
  3. Dexterous
  4. Awkward

 

Ans.d

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Taciturn
  2. Reserved
  3. Clamorous
  4. Silent

 

Ans.c

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Sporadic
  2. Frequent
  3. Intermittent
  4. Scarce

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Three of the words are related in some way, the remaining word is not related to the rest. You have to pick the word which does not fit in the relation and mark that as your answer.

 

  1. Fanatic
  2. Zealot
  3. Maniac
  4. Rational

 

Ans.d

 

Correct the grammar

 

Q.In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify that part of the sentence which needs to be changed for the sentence to be grammatically correct.

 

  1. Almost all school teachers insist that
  2. a student’s mother
  3. is responsible for the student’s conduct
  4. as well as his dress.

 

Ans.c

 

Q.In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify that part of the sentence which needs to be changed for the sentence to be grammatically correct.

 

  1. In the forthcoming elections
  2. every man and woman
  3. must vote for the candidate
  4. of their choice.

 

Ans.d

 

Q.In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify that part of the sentence which needs to be changed for the sentence to be grammatically correct.

 

  1. If one has to decide
  2. about the choice of a career
  3. you should choose that option
  4. which is really beneficial.

 

Ans.c

 

Q.In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify that part of the sentence which needs to be changed for the sentence to be grammatically correct.

 

  1. It is essential that diseases like tuberculosis
  2. are detected and treated
  3. as early as possible in order to
  4. assure a successful cure.

 

Ans.d

 

Q.In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Identify that part of the sentence which needs to be changed for the sentence to be grammatically correct.

 

  1. The Mumbai police have found
  2. the body of a man
  3. who they believe to be
  4. the prime suspect in a murder case.

 

Ans.c

 

CAT Questions – In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.

 

Q.Limpid : Murky

 

  1. Dazed : Clouded
  2. Obscure : Vague
  3. Bright : Gloomy
  4. Nebulous : Dim

 

Ans.c

 

Q.Ease : Alleviate

 

  1. Hint : Allocative
  2. Revolt : Repudiate
  3. Collapse : Rise
  4. Question : Interrogate

 

Ans.d

 

Q.Secret : Clandestine

 

  1. Overt : Furtive
  2. Covert : Stealthy
  3. Open : Closed
  4. News : Rumour

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Drama : Audience

 

  1. Brawl : Vagabonds
  2. Game : Spectators
  3. Art : Critics
  4. Movie : Actors

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Building : Storey

 

  1. Book : Chapter
  2. Sentence : Adjective
  3. Tree : Stem
  4. Elephant : Tusk

 

Ans.a

 

CAT Practice questions

In each of these questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by a pair of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship that is least similar to the one expressed in the original pair.

 

Q.Germane : Pertinent

 

  1. Apt : Appropriate
  2. Quick : Urgent
  3. Dull : Sluggish
  4. Excited : Serene

 

Ans.d

 

Q.Sail : Ship

 

  1. Propeller : Aeroplane
  2. Radar : Satellite
  3. Hydrogen : Balloon
  4. Accelerator : Car

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Cosmic : Universe

 

  1. Terrestrial : Earth
  2. Lunar : Moon
  3. Connubial : Youth
  4. Annular : Ring

 

Ans.c

 

Q.Canine : Dog

 

  1. Feline : Cat
  2. Aquiline : Parrot
  3. Serpentine : Cobra
  4. Vulpine : Fox

 

Ans.b

 

Q.Xenophobia : Foreigners

 

  1. Claustrophobia : Height
  2. Anglophobia : Englishmen
  3. Bibliophobia : Book
  4. Hemophobia : Blood

 

Ans.a

 

Rearrange sentences

Each of the questions consists of four sentences marked A, B, C and D. You are required to arrange the sentences in a proper sequence so as to make a coherent paragraph

 

Q.A. Where there is division there must be conflict, not only division between man and woman, but also division on the basis of race, religion and language.
B. We said the present condition of racial divisions, linguistic divisions has brought out so many wars.
C. Also we went into the question as to why does this conflict between man and man exist.
D. May we continue with what we were discussing last evening?

 

  1. ABCD
  2. DBCA
  3. BCAD
  4. BDAC

 

Ans.b

 

Q.A. No other documents give us so intimate a sense of the tone and temper of the first generation poets.
B. Part of the interest of the journal is of course historical.
C. And the clues to Wordsworth’s creative processes which the journal affords are of decisive significance.
D. Not even in their own letters do Wordsworth and Coleridge stand so present before us than they do through the references in the journal.

 

  1. BACD
  2. BDAC
  3. CBAD
  4. DABC

 

Ans.a

 

Q.A. These high plans died, slowly but definitively, and were replaced by the dream of a huge work on philosophy.
B. In doing whatever little he could of the new plan, the poet managed to write speculations on theology, and political theory.
C. The poet’s huge ambitions included writing a philosophic epic on the origin of evil.
D. However, not much was done in this regard either, with only fragments being written

 

  1. ABCD
  2. CBAD
  3. CDAB
  4. CADB

 

Ans.d

 

Q.A. We can never leave off wondering how that which has ever been should cease to be.
B. As we advance in life, we acquire a keener sense of the value of time.
C. Nothing else, indeed, seems to be of any consequence; and we become misers in this sense.
D. We try to arrest its few last tottering steps, and to make it linger on the brink of the grave.

 

  1. ACDB
  2. BCDA
  3. BDCA
  4. ABCD

 

Ans.b

 

Q.A. There is no complete knowledge about anything.
B. Our thinking is the outcome of knowledge, and knowledge is always limited.
C. Knowledge always goes hand in hand with ignorance.
D. Therefore, our thinking which is born out of knowledge, is always limited under all circumstances.

 

  1. BCAD
  2. BCDA
  3. DABC
  4. CBDA

 

Ans.d

 

Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6, so as to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

 

Q.1. Currency movements can have a dramatic impact on equity returns for foreign investors.
A. This is not surprising as many developing economies try to peg their exchange rates to the US dollar or to a basket of currencies.
B. Many developing economies manage to keep exchange rate volatility lower than that in the industrial economies.
C. India has also gone in for the full float on the current account and abolished the managed exchange rate.
D. Dramatic exceptions are Argentina, Brazil and Nigeria.
6. Another emerging market specific risk is liquidity risk.

 

  1. ADBC
  2. CDAB
  3. BDAC
  4. CABD

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. All human beings are aware of the existence of a power greater than that of the mortals — the name given to such a power by individuals is an outcome of birth, education and choice.
A. This power provides an anchor in times of adversity, difficulty and trouble.
B. Industrial organisations also contribute to the veneration of this power by participating in activities such as religious ceremonies and festivities organised by the employees.
C. Their other philanthropic contributions include the construction and maintenance of religious places such as temples or gurdwaras.
D. Logically, therefore, such a power should be remembered in good times also.
6. The top management/managers should participate in all such events, irrespective of their personal choice.

 

  1. ADBC
  2. BCAD
  3. CADB
  4. DACB

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. Total forgiveness for a mistake generates a sense of complacency towards target achievement among the employees.
A. In such a situation the work ethos gets distorted and individuals get a feeling that they can get away with any lapse.
B. The feeling that they develop is: whether I produce results or not, the management will not punish me or does not have the guts to punish me.
C. Also, excess laxity damages management credibility, because for a long time, the management has maintained that dysfunctional behaviour will result in punishment, and when something goes wrong, it fails to take specific punitive action.
D. The severity of the punishment may be reduced by modifying it, but some action must be taken against the guilty so as to serve as a reminder for all others in the organization.
6. Moreover, it helps establish the management’s image of being firm, fair and yet human.

 

  1. DCBA
  2. BACD
  3. DBCA
  4. CABD

 

Ans.b

 

Q.1. But the vessel kept going away. A. He looked anxiously around.
B. There was nothing to see but the water and empty sky.
C. He could now barely see her funnel and masts when heaved up on a high wave.
D. He did not know for what.
6. A breaking wave slapped him in the face, choking him.

 

  1. ADBC
  2. ACDB
  3. CADB
  4. ABCD

 

Ans.c

 

Q.1. Managers must lead by example; they should not be averse to giving a hand in manual work; if required.
A. They should also update their competence to guide their subordinates; this would be possible only if they keep in regular touch with new processes, machines, instruments, gauges, systems and gadgets.
B. Work must be allocated to different groups and team members in clear, specific terms.
C. Too much of wall-building is detrimental to the exercise of the ‘personal charisma’ of the leader whose presence should be felt not only through notices, circulars or memos, but by being seen physically.
D. Simple, clean living among one’s people should be insisted upon.
6. This would mean the maintaining of an updated organization chart; laying down job descriptions; identifying key result areas; setting personal targets; and above all, monitoring of performance, to meet organizational goals.

 

  1. BDAC
  2. BCDA
  3. ADCB
  4. ACDB

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. The top management should perceive the true worth of people and only then make friends.
A. Such ‘true friends’ are very few and very rare.
B. Factors such as affluence, riches, outward sophistication and conceptual abilities are not prerequisites for genuine friendship.
C. Such people must be respected and kept close to the heart.
D. Business realities call for developing a large circle of acquaintances and contacts; however, all of them will be motivated by their own self-interest and it would be wrong to treat them as genuine friends.
6. There is always a need for real friends to whom one can turn for balanced, unselfish advice, more so when one is caught in a dilemma.

 

  1. ABCD
  2. ADBC
  3. ACDB
  4. ACBD

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. Managers, especially the successful ones, should guard against ascribing to themselves qualities and attributes which they may not have, or may have in a measure much less than what they think they have!
A. External appearances can be deceptive.
B. To initiate action, without being in possession of full facts, can lead to disastrous results.
C. Also, one should develop confidants who can be used as sounding boards, in order to check one’s own thinking against that of the others.
D. It is also useful to be receptive to feedback about oneself so that a real understanding of the ‘self’ exists.
6. A false perception can be like wearing coloured glasses — all facts get tainted by colour of the glass and the mind interprets them wrongly to fit into the perception.

 

  1. DCAB
  2. BADC
  3. DABC
  4. BCAD

 

Ans.a

 

Q.1. Conflicting demands for resources are always voiced by different functions/departments in an organization.
A. Every manager examines the task entrusted to him and evaluates the resources required.
B. Availability of resources in full measure makes task achievement easy, because it reduces the effort needed to somewhat make-do.
C. A safety cushion is built into demand for resources, to offset the adverse impact of any cut imposed by the seniors.
D. This aspect needs to be understood as a reality.
6. Dynamic, energetic, growth-oriented and wise managements are always confronted with the inadequacy of resources with respect to one of the four Ms (men, machines, money and materials) and the two Ts (time and technology).

 

  1. DABC
  2. ACBD
  3. ABCD
  4. BCDA

 

Ans.b

 

Q.1. Despite the passage of time, a large number of conflicts continue to remain alive, because the wronged parties, in reality or in imagination, wish to take revenge upon each other, thus creating a vicious circle.
A. At times, managers are called upon to take ruthless decisions in the long-term interests of the organization.
B. People hurt others, at times knowingly, to teach them a lesson and, at other times, because they lack correct understanding of the other person’s stand.
C. The delegation of any power, to any person, is never absolute.
D. Every ruthless decision will be accepted easily if the situation at the moment of committing the act is objectively analysed, shared openly and discussed rationally.
6. Power is misused; its effects can last only for a while, since employees are bound to confront it some day, more so, the talented ones.

 

  1. BCAD
  2. ADBC
  3. DABC
  4. BADC

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. Managers need to differentiate among those who commit an error once, those who are repetitively errant but can be corrected, and those who are basically wicked.
A. The persons in this category will resort to sweet-talk and make all sorts of promises on being caught, but, at the first opportunity will revert to their bad ways.
B. Managers must take ruthless action against the basically wicked and ensure their separation from the organization at the earliest.
C. The first category needs to be corrected softly and duly counselled; the second category should be dealt with firmly and duly counselled till they realize the danger of persisting with their errant behaviour.
D. It is the last category of whom the managers must be most wary.
6. The punishment must be fair and based on the philosophy of giving all the possible opportunities and help prior to taking ruthless action

 

  1. ADCB
  2. CDAB
  3. CADB
  4. BDAC

 

Ans.b

 

Read and Answer – Each of the questions contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. You have to choose that set in which the statements are logically related.

 

Q.1. Some bubbies are not dubbles
2. Some dubbles are not bubbles
3. Noone who is rubbles is dubbles
4. All dubbles are rubbles
5. Some dubbles are bubbles
6. Some who are rubbles are not bubbles

 

  1. 136
  2. 456
  3. 123
  4. 246

 

Ans.d

 

Q.1. Some men are bad
2. All men are sad
3. All bad things are men
4. All bad things are sad
5. Some sad things are men
6. Some sad things are bad

 

  1. 165
  2. 236
  3. 241
  4. 235

 

Ans.b

 

Q.1. All Toms are bright
2. No bright Toms are Dicks
3. Some Toms are Dicks
4. Some Dicks are bright
5. No Tom is a Dick
6. No Dick is a Tom

 

  1. 123
  2. 256
  3. 126
  4. 341

 

Ans.c

 

Q.1. All witches are nasty
2. Some devils are nasty
3. All witches are devils
4. All devils are nasty
5. Some nasty are devils
6. No witch is nasty

 

  1. 234
  2. 341
  3. 453
  4. 653

 

Ans.b

 

Q.1. No tingo is a bingo
2. All jingoes are bingoes
3. No jingo is a tingo
4. Some jingoes are not tingoes
5. Some tingoes are jingoes
6. Some bingoes are not tingoes

 

  1. 123
  2. 132
  3. 461
  4. 241

 

Ans.a

 

CAT – 1999 Actual paper

 

Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of the sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

 

Q. A. In rejecting the functionalism in positivist organization theory, either wholly or partially, there is often a move towards a political model of organization theory.
B. Thus, the analysis would shift to the power resources possessed by different groups in the organization and the way they use these resources in actual power plays to shape the organizational structure.
C. At the extreme, in one set of writings, the growth of administrators in the organization is held to be completely unrelated to the work to be done and to be caused totally by the political pursuit of self-interest.
D. The political model holds that individual interests are pursued in organizational life through the exercise of power and influence.

 

  1. ADBC

  2. CBAD

  3. DBCA

  4. ABDC

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Group decision-making, however, does not necessarily fully guard against arbitrariness and anarchy, for individual capriciousness can get substituted by collusion of group members.
B. Nature itself is an intricate system of checks and balances, meant to preserve the delicate balance between various environmental factors that affect our ecology.
C. In institutions also, there is a need to have in place a system of checks and balances which inhibits the concentration of power in the hands of only some individuals.
D. When human interventions alter this delicate balance, the outcomes have been seen to be disastrous.

 

  1. CDAB

  2. BCAD

  3. CABD

  4. BDCA

 

Ans . D

 

Q. A. He was bone-weary and soul-weary, and found himself muttering, “Either I can’t manage this place, or it’s unmanageable.”
B. To his horror, he realized that he had become the victim of an amorphous, unwitting, unconscious conspiracy to immerse him in routine work that had no significance.
C. It was one of those nights in the office when the office clock was moving towards four in the morning and Bennis was still not through with the incredible mass of paper stacked before him.
D. He reached for his calendar and ran his eyes down each hour, half-hour, and quarter-hour, to see where his time had gone that day, the day before, the month before.

 

  1. ABCD

  2. CADB

  3. BDCA

  4. DCBA

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and obtained the most realistic results almost on the spot.
B. The man shuffled away into the back regions to make up a prescription, and after a moment I got through on the shop-telephone to the Consulate, intimating my location.
C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned and inquired whether he could give me something for acute gastric cramp.
D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked for a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive oil and flaked soap.

 

  1. DCBA

  2. DACB

  3. BDAC

  4. BCDA

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull.
B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.
C. Intelligence is expressed as intelligence quotient, and tests are developed to indicate what an average child of a certain age can do …. What a five-year-old can answer, but a four-year-old cannot, for instance.
D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in school needed special attention.
E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.

 

  1. CDABE

  2. DECAB

  3. EDACB

  4. CBADE

 

Ans . C

 

CAT – 1999 Actual paper

 

Read each of the eight short passages given below and answer the question that follow it.

 

Q. Three airlines — IA, JA and SA — operate on the Delhi- Mumbai route. To increase the number of seats sold, SA reduced its fares and this was emulated by IA and JA immediately. The general belief was that the volume of air travel between Delhi and Mumbai would increase as a result. Which of the following, if true, would add credence to the general belief?

 

  1. Increase in profitability of the three airlines.

  2. Extension of the discount scheme to other routes

  3. A study that shows that air travellers in India are price-conscious

  4. A study that shows that as much as 80 per cent of air travel in India is company-sponsored

 

Ans . c

 

Q. According to McNeill, a Brahmin priest was expected to be able to recite at least one of the Vedas. The practice was essential for several centuries when the Vedas had not yet been written down. It must have had a selective effect, since priests would have been recruited from those able or willing to memorize long passages. It must have helped in the dissemination of the work, since a memorized passage can be duplicated many times. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

 

  1. Reciting the Vedas was a Brahmin’s obligation

  2. The Vedic priest was like a recorded audio cassette.

  3. McNeill studied the behaviour of Brahmin priests

  4. Vedic hymns had not been scripted.

 

Ans . B

 

Q. Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And the state faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So, it is advisable that the working population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself. Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusions drawn in the above passage the most?

 

  1. The investible income of the working population, as a proportion of its total income, will grow in the future.

  2. The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future.

  3. India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all its positive and negative implications.

  4. If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the joint family system.

 

Ans . C

 

Q. Various studies have shown that our forested and hilly regions and, in general, areas where biodiversity — as reflected in the variety of flora — is high, are the places where poverty appears to be high. And these same areas are also the ones where educational performance seems to be poor. Therefore, it may be surmised that, even disregarding poverty status, richness in biodiversity goes hand in hand with educational backwardness. Which one of the following statements, if true, can be said to best provide supporting evidence for the surmise mentioned in the passage?

 

  1. In regions where there is little variety in flora, educational performance is seen to be as good as in regions with high variety in flora, where poverty levels are high

  2. Regions which show high biodiversity also exhibit poor education performance, at low levels of poverty.

  3. Regions which show high biodiversity reveal high levels of poverty and poor educational performance.

  4. In regions where there is low biodiversity, at all levels of poverty, educational performance is seen to be good.

 

Ans . C

 

Q. Cigarettes constitute a mere 20 per cent of tobacco consumption in India, and fewer than 15 per cent of the 200 million tobacco users consume cigarettes. Yet these 15 per cent contribute nearly 90 per cent of the tax revenues to the exchequer from the tobacco sector. The punitive cigarette taxation regime has kept the tax base narrow, and reducing taxes will expand this base. Which of the following best bolsters the conclusion that reducing duties will expand the tax base?

 

  1. The cigarette manufacturers’ association has decided to indulge in aggressive promotion.

  2. There is a likelihood that tobacco consumers will shift to cigarette smoking if cigarette prices were to reduce.

  3. The cigarette manufacturers are lobbying for a reduction on duties.

  4. An increase in duties on non-cigarette tobacco may lead to a shift in favour of cigarette smoking

 

Ans . B

 

Q. Thomas Malthus, the British clergyman-turned economist, predicted that the planet would not be able to support the human population for long. His explanation was that human population grows at a geometric rate, while the food supply grows only at an arithmetic rate. Which one of the following, if true, would not undermine the thesis offered by Malthus?

 

  1. Population growth can be slowed down by the voluntary choices of individuals and not just by natural disasters

  2. The capacity of the planet to feed a growing human population can be enhanced through biotechnological means.

  3. Human systems, and natural systems like food supply, follow natural laws of growth which have remained constant, and will remain unchanged.

  4. Human beings can colonize other planetary systems on a regular and ongoing basis to accommodate a growing population.

 

Ans . C

 

Q. The company’s coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled 8,079 tonnes, an all-time record. The increase over the previous year’s production of 5,830 tonnes was 38.58 per cent. The previous highest crop was 6,089 tonnes in 1970-71. The company had fixed a target of 8,000 tonnes to be realized by the year 2000-01, and this has been achieved two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key areas of irrigation, replacement of unproductive coffee bushes, intensive refilling and improved agricultural practices. It is now our endeavour to reach the target of 10,000 tonnes in 2001-02. Which one of the following would contribute most to making the target of 10,000 tonnes in 2001-02 unrealistic?

 

  1. The potential of the productivity enhancing measures implemented up to now has been exhausted.

  2. The total company land under coffee has remained constant since 1969 when an estate in the Nilgiri Hills was acquired.

  3. The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes predictions about production uncertain

  4. The target-setting procedures in the company had been proved to be sound by the achievement of the 8,000 tonnes target.

 

Ans . A

 

Q. Animals, in general, are shrewd in proportion as they cultivate society. Elephants and beavers show the greatest signs of this sagacity when they are together in large numbers, but when man invades their communities they lose all their spirit of industry. Among insects, the labours of the bee and the ant have attracted the attention and admiration of naturalists, but all their sagacity seems to be lost upon separation, and a single bee or ant seems destitute of every degree of industry. It becomes the most stupid insect imaginable, and it languishes and soon dies. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

 

  1. Humankind is responsible for the destruction of the natural habitat of animals and insects.

  2. Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.

  3. Naturalists have great admiration for bees and ants, despite their lack of industry upon separation.

  4. Elephants and beavers are smarter than bees and ants in the presence of human beings.

 

Ans . B

 

Directions for questions 14 and 15: For each of the two questions, indicate which of the statements given with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unseasonable man in the passage below.

 

Unseasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unseasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unseasonable man.

 

Q. He tends to

 

  1. entertain women

  2. be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree.

  3. be helpful when solicited

  4. tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before

 

Ans . D

 

Q. The unseasonable man tends to

 

  1. bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal.

  2. disclose confidential information to others

  3. sing the praises of the bride when he goes to a wedding.

  4. sleep late and rise early.

 

Ans . A

 

In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four.

 

Q. It was us who had left before he arrived

 

  1. we who had left before time he had arrived.

  2. us who had went before he arrived.

  3. us who had went before had arrived.

  4. we who had left before he arrived.

 

Ans . D

 

Q. The MP rose up to say that in her opinion, she thought the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously.

 

  1. rose to say that she thought the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed

  2. rose up to say that, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on

  3. rose to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed

  4. rose to say that, in her opinion, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on

 

Ans . A

 

Q. Mr Pillai, the president of the union and who is also a member of the community group, will be in charge of the negotiations.

 

  1. since he is a member of the community group

  2. also being a member of the community group

  3. a member of the community group

  4. in addition, who is a member of the community group

 

Ans . C

 

Q. Since the advent of cable television, at the beginning of this decade, the entertainment industry took a giant stride forward in our country.

 

  1. this decade saw the entertainment industry taking

  2. this decade, the entertainment industry has taken

  3. this decade, the entertainment industry had taken

  4. this decade, the entertainment industry took

 

Ans . B

 

Q. His mother made great sacrifices to educate him, moving house on three occasions, and severing the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.

 

  1. severing the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.

  2. severed the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.

  3. severed the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need for persevering.

  4. severing the thread on her loom’s shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make them understand the need to persevere

 

Ans . A

 

Q. If you are in a three-month software design project and, in two weeks, you’ve put together a program that solves part of the problem, show it to your boss without delay

 

  1. and, you’ve put together a program that solves part of the problem in two weeks

  2. and, in two weeks, you’ve put together a program that solves part of the problem

  3. and, you’ve put together a program that has solved part of the problem in two weeks

  4. and, in two weeks, you put together a program that solved only part of the problem

 

Ans . B

 

Q. Many of these environmentalists proclaim to save nothing less than the planet itself.

 

  1. to save nothing lesser than

  2. that they are saving nothing lesser than

  3. to save nothing less than

  4. that they save nothing less than

 

Ans . D

 

Q. Bacon believes that the medical profession should be permitted to ease and quicken death where the end would otherwise only delay for a few days and at the cost of great pain.

 

  1. be delayed for a few days

  2. be delayed for a few days and

  3. be otherwise only delayed for a few days and

  4. otherwise only delay for a few days and

 

Ans . C

 

Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6

 

Q. 1. Making people laugh is tricky.
A. At times, the intended humour may simply not come off.
B. Making people laugh while trying to sell them something is a tougher challenge, since the commercial can fall flat on two grounds.
C. There are many advertisements which do amuse but do not even begin to set the cash registers ringing.
D. Again, it is rarely sufficient for an advertiser simply to amuse the target audience in order to reap the sales benefit.
6. There are indications that in substituting the hardsell for a more entertaining approach, some agencies have rather thrown out the baby with the bath-water.

 

  1. CDBA

  2. ABCD

  3. BADC

  4. DCBA

 

Ans . C

 

Q. 1. Picture a termite colony, occupying a tall mud hump on an African plain.
A. Hungry predators often invade the colony and unsettle the balance.
B. The colony flourishes only if the proportion of soldiers to workers remains roughly the same, so that the queen and workers can be protected by the soldiers, and the queen and soldiers can be serviced by the workers.
C. But its fortunes are presently restored, because the immobile queen, walled in well below the ground level, lays eggs not only in large enough numbers, but also in the varying proportions required.
D. The hump is alive with worker termites and soldier termites going about their distinct kinds of business.
6. How can we account for a mysterious ability to respond like this to events on the distant surface?

 

  1. BADC

  2. DBAC

  3. ADCB

  4. BDCA

 

Ans . B

 

Q. 1. According to recent research, the critical period for developing language skills is between the age of three and five years.
A. The read-to child already has a large vocabulary and a sense of grammar and sentence structure.
B. Children who are read to in these years have a far better chance of reading well in school, indeed, of doing well in all their subjects.
C. And the reason is actually quite simple.
D. This correlation is far and away the highest yet found between home influences and school success.
6. Their comprehension of language is therefore very high.

 

  1. DACD

  2. ADCB

  3. ABCD

  4. BDCA

 

Ans . D

 

Q. 1. High-powered outboard motors were considered to be one of the major threats to the survival of the Beluga whales.
A. With these, hunters could approach Belugas within hunting range and profit from its inner skin and blubber.
B. To escape an approaching motor, Belugas have learnt to dive to the ocean bottom and stay there for up to 20 min, by which time the confused predator has left.
C. Today, however, even with much more powerful engines, it is difficult to come close, because the whales seem to disappear suddenly just when you thought you had them in your sights.
D. When the first outboard engines arrived in the early 1930s, one came across 4 HP and 8 HP motors.
6. Belugas seem to have used their well-known sensitivity to noise to evolve an ‘avoidance’ strategy to outsmart hunters and their powerful technologies.

 

  1. DACB

  2. ACDB

  3. ADCB

  4. DBAC

 

Ans . A

 

Q. 1. The reconstruction of history by post-revolutionary science texts involves more than a multiplication of historical misconstructions.
A. Because they aim quickly to acquaint the student with what the contemporary scientific community thinks it knows, textbooks treat the various experiments, concepts, laws and theories of the current normal science as separately and as nearly seriatim as possible.
B. Those misconstructions render revolutions invisible; the arrangement of the still visible material in science texts implies a process that, if it existed, would deny revolutions a function.
C. But when combined with the generally unhistorical air of science writing and with the occasional systematic misconstruction, one impression is likely to follow.
D. As pedagogy, this technique of presentation is unexceptionable.
6. Science has reached its present state by a series of individual discoveries and inventions that, when gathered together, constitute the modern body of technical knowledge.

 

  1. BADC

  2. ADCB

  3. DACB

  4. CBDA

 

Ans . A

 

Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.

A. All cigarettes are hazardous to health.
B. Brand X is a cigarette.
C. Brand X is hazardous to health.
ABC is a valid option, where statement C can be concluded from statements A and B

 

Q. A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
B. Tara Tech employs knowledge workers.
C. Tara Tech is a software company.
D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
E. Tara Tech employs only knowledge workers.

 

  1. ABC

  2. ACB

  3. CDB

  4. ACE

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.
B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to health.
C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.
D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increased carbon monoxide.
E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health.

 

  1. CBA

  2. BDE

  3. CDE

  4. BAC

 

Ans . D

 

Q. A. Apples are not sweets.
B. Some apples are sweet.
C. All sweets are tasty.
D. Some apples are not tasty.
E. No apple is tasty.

 

  1. CEA

  2. BDC

  3. CBD

  4. EAC

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Some towns in India are polluted.
B. All polluted towns should be destroyed.
C. Town Meghana should be destroyed.
D. Town Meghana is polluted.
E. Some towns in India should be destroyed.

 

  1. BDE

  2. BAE

  3. ADE

  4. CDB

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. No patriot is a criminal.
B. Bundledas is not a criminal.
C. Bundledas is a patriot.
D. Bogusdas is not a patriot.
E. Bogusdas is a criminal.

 

  1. ACB

  2. ABC

  3. ADE

  4. ABE

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Anteaters like ants.
B. Boys are anteaters.
C. Balaram is an anteater.
D. Balaram likes ants.
E. Balaram may eat ants.

 

  1. DCA

  2. ADC

  3. ABE

  4. ACD

 

Ans . D

 

Q. A. All actors are handsome.
B. Some actors are popular.
C. Ram is handsome.
D. Ram is a popular actor.
E. Some popular people are handsome.

 

  1. ACD

  2. ABE

  3. DCA

  4. EDC

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. Modern industry is technology-driven.
B. BTI is a modern industry.
C. BTI is technology-driven.
D. BTI may be technology-driven
E. Technology driven industry is modern.

 

  1. ABC

  2. ABD

  3. BCA

  4. EBC

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. All Golmal islanders are blue-coloured people.
B. Some smart people are not blue-coloured people.
C. Some babies are blue-coloured.
D. Some babies are smart.
E. Some smart people are not Golmal islanders.

 

  1. BCD

  2. ABE

  3. CBD

  4. None of these

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. MBAs are in great demand.
B. Ram and Sita are in great demand.
C. Ram is in great demand.
D. Sita is in great demand.
E. Ram and Sita are MBAs.

 

  1. ABE

  2. ECD

  3. AEB

  4. EBA

 

Ans . C

 

READ AND ANSWER

Directions for questions 121 to 124: Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A, B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

 

Q. Either the orangutan is not angry, or he frowns upon the world.
A. The orangutan frowns upon the world.
B. The orangutan is not angry.
C. The orangutan does not frown upon the world.
D. The orangutan is angry.

 

  1. CB only

  2. DA only

  3. AB only

  4. CB and DA

 

Ans . D

 

Q. Either Ravana is a demon, or he is a hero.
A. Ravana is a hero.
B. Ravana is a demon.
C. Ravana is not a demon.
D. Ravana is not a hero.

 

  1. CD only

  2. BA only

  3. CD and BA

  4. DB and CA

 

Ans . D

 

Q. Whenever Rajeev uses the Internet, he dreams about spiders.
A. Rajeev did not dream about spiders.
B. Rajeev used the Internet.
C. Rajeev dreamt about spiders.
D. Rajeev did not use the Internet.

 

  1. AD

  2. DC

  3. CB

  4. DA

 

Ans . A

 

Q. If I talk to my professors, then I do not need to take a pill for headache.
A. I talked to my professors.
B. I did not need to take a pill for headache.
C. I needed to take a pill for headache.
D. I did not talk to my professors.

 

  1. AB only

  2. DC only

  3. CD only

  4. AB and CD

 

Ans . D

 

Read and answer

Each question has a set of four statements. Each statement has three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.

 

Q. A. No cowboys laugh. Some who laugh are sphinxes. Some sphinxes are not cowboys.
B. All ghosts are florescent. Some ghost do not sing. Some singers are not florescent.
C. Cricketers indulge in swearing. Those who swear are hanged. Some who are hanged are not cricketers.
D. Some crazy people are pianists. All crazy people are whistlers. Some whistlers are pianists.

 

  1. A and B

  2. C only

  3. A and D

  4. D only

 

Ans . C

 

Q. A. All good people are knights. All warriors are good people. All knights are warriors.
B. No footballers are ministers. All footballers are tough. Some ministers are players.
C. All pizzas are snacks. Some meals are pizzas. Some meals are snacks.
D. Some barkers are musk deer. All barkers are sloth bears. Some sloth bears are musk deer.

 

  1. C and D

  2. B and C

  3. A only

  4. C only

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Dinosaurs are prehistoric creatures. Water-buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water-buffaloes are not prehistoric creatures.
B. All politicians are frank. No frank people are crocodiles. No crocodiles are politicians.
C. No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz. Diamonds are opals.
D. All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.

 

  1. C only

  2. B only

  3. A and D

  4. B and C

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. All earthquakes cause havoc. Some landslides cause havoc. Some earthquakes cause landslides.
B. All glass things are transparent. Some curios are glass things. Some curios are transparent.
C. All clay objects are brittle. All XY are clay objects. Some XY are brittle.
D. No criminal is a patriot. Ram is not a patriot. Ram is a criminal.

 

  1. D only

  2. B only

  3. C and B

  4. A only

 

Ans . C

 

Q. A. MD is an actor. Some actors are pretty. MD is pretty.
B. Some men are cops. All cops are brave. Some brave people are cops.
C. All cops are brave. Some men are cops. Some men are brave.
D. All actors are pretty ; MD is not an actor ; MD is not pretty.

 

  1. D only

  2. C only

  3. A only

  4. B and C

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No IIMs are BIMs.
B. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No BIMs are IIMs.
C. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some IIMs are BIMs.
D. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are IIMs.

 

  1. A and B

  2. C and D

  3. A only

  4. B only

 

Ans . A

 

Q. A. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Citizens of Yes Islands are young people. Young people speak only the truth.
B. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some Yes Islands are in Atlantic. Some citizens of Yes Islands are in the Atlantic.
C. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some young people are citizens of Yes Islands. Some young people speak only the truth.
D. Some people speak only the truth. Some citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some people who speak only the truth are citizens of Yes Islands.

 

  1. A only

  2. B only

  3. C only

  4. D only

 

Ans . C

 

Q. A. All mammals are viviparous. Some fish are viviparous. Some fish are mammals.
B. All birds are oviparous. Some fish are not oviparous. Some fish are birds.
C. No mammal is oviparous. Some creatures are oviparous and some are not. Some creatures are not mammals.
D. Some creatures are mammals. Some creatures are viviparous. Some mammals are viviparous.

 

  1. A only

  2. B only

  3. C only

  4. D only

 

Ans . C

 

Q. A. Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. Some poets are not writers.
B. Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken do not climb beanstalks. Some chicken are not giants.
C. All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some penguins live in snowdrifts. Some penguins are explorers.
D. Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony.

 

  1. A only

  2. B only

  3. B and C

  4. D only

 

Ans . B

 

Q. A. A few farmers are rocket scientists. Some rocket scientists catch snakes. A few farmers catch snakes.
B. Poonam is a kangaroo. Some kangaroos are made of teak. Poonam is made of teak.
C. No bulls eat grass. All matadors eat grass. No matadors are bulls.
D. Some skunks drive Cadillacs. All skunks are polar bears. Some polar bears drive Cadillacs.

 

  1. B only

  2. A and C

  3. C only

  4. C and D

 

Ans . D